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Why preach ‘repent
or perish’ when the non-elect can’t repent and the elect can’t
perish? Besides "because we are commanded to," why bother
preaching at all, since the elect will be saved no matter what they do?
How do you reconcile this?
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How can God hold the
non-elect responsible for ‘not believing’ and damn them for it, when
He deliberately did not give them the faith to enable them to believe in
the first place?
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If Christ has already
made an efficacious atonement for the sins of an elect person, is that
elect person actually lost during the period prior to their being saved?
How can a Calvinist sing, "I once was lost, but now I'm
found"?
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During the period
before an elect person gets saved, how are they condemned already (for
not believing) when their unbelief (which is a sin) has already been
paid for by Christ on the cross?
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If repentance is a
gift only given to the elect, what did Jesus mean when He said that some
of the people in hell would have repented if they had had the same
opportunity as the people to whom He preached?
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Why does the Spirit of
God strive and convict some sinners who later prove, by dying and going
to hell, that they were non-elect? What is the purpose of such movings
of the Spirit?
Also, if the following is true:
-
If "John Smith"
is deliberately foreordained to commit sin
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Is hated by God before
He is born
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Is predestined to go
to hell before he is born
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Cannot repent because
God deliberately refuses to give him the gift of repentance
-
Cannot believe because
God deliberately refuses to give him the gift of faith
-
Was not, is not and
never will be loved by God in the slightest degree
-
Was deliberately
excluded from the group of people Jesus died for on the cross so that
salvation was intentionally and forever put completely out of his
reach:
Then, how is it John Smith’s fault that
he will end up burning forever in the lake of fire?
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